There are some important tests that every Orthopaedic
Surgeon should think about. This doesn’t mean the tests are needed for every
patient. It just means that the physician needs to think about these tests to
see if it will benefit the patient or not. Some tests commonly ordered are
hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c), Vitamin D25, and C-reactive protein (CRP) &
sedimentation rate.
Hemoglobin A1C test are ordered for diabetic patients. HbA1c
is a good test for monitoring long-term glucose (sugar) control on patients with
diabetes. HbA1c is a percentage of the glycanated hemoglobin relative to the total
hemoglobin in the blood. The normal range of HbA1c is 4-6%. More than 7% is
high. Another test, the 25-Hydroxy Vitamin D blood test is ordered for patients
with osteoporosis, nonunions, fragility fractures, and occasionally in patients
with infections. If infection is suspected and the physician needs to monitor
the progress of treatment, C-reactive protein (CRP) & sedimentation rate
tests should be ordered. A Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
screening should be ordered for patients who could be carriers. Nutritional
assessments may be necessary for other patients.
Joints should be aspirated prior to injecting of the joint.
The physician should additionally be sure that there is no infection when
injecting the joint. A fluid analysis from the joint should be completed.
Important vascular studies that can be ordered include: A.B.I., CTA, or a
Doppler. Some radiological studies are performed with a dye injection. For
example, an MRI of the spine will require gadolinium, while an MRI arthrogram
may be used for the hip or shoulder. Tests rarely ordered include: alpha-defensin
test (infection); Nicotine/Cotinine test (smoking); Protein S, Protein C, or
Factor 5 leiden tests. There are some special tests and precautions that must
be taken for patients with epilepsy. It is important that the physician does
not perform a procedure if the epilepsy is not controlled. It is important to
know that anti-epileptic medication can interfere with vitamin D metabolism in
the liver.
Patients on anticoagulation medications should be monitored,
especially patients with atrial fibrillation, which makes the orthopaedic
procedure more complicated. You want to give the patient anticoagulation, but
not encroaching on the management of atrial fibrillation. Patients with a short
or thick neck, or a history of sleep apnea, may need additional sleep studies before
surgery and may need special precautions after surgery. Sleep apnea will affect
the post-operative care of the patient. The physician should avoid ordering unnecessary
tests and focus on ordering the most important tests. Orthopaedics deal with
concepts and every condition will have a reasonable way of diagnosing it and a
reasonable way of treating it.
Meniscal injuries are very common. The McMurray’s Test is a
rotational maneuver of the knee that is frequently used to aid in the diagnosis
of meniscal tears. With a meniscal tear, the patient usually complains of knee
pain localized to the lateral or medial side of the knee joint. The patient
will have locking, clicking, pain, or effusion.
During the physical examination, joint line tenderness is
the most sensitive finding. Swelling of the knee and a possible extension lag
(locked knee) is also a common finding. Pain at a higher level is usually
associated with the medial collateral ligament. Pain at a lower level is
usually associated with the pes anserine bursa.
What is the McMurrays test?
The McMurray’s test is a knee examination test that provokes
pain or a painful click as the knee is brought from flexion to extension with
either internal or external rotation. The McMurray’s test uses the tibia to
trap the meniscus between the femoral condyles of the femur and the tibia. When
performing the test, the patient should be lying supine with the knee
hyperflexed. The examiner then grasps the patient’s heel with one hand and
places the other hand over the knee joint. To test the medial meniscus, the
knee is fully flexed, and the examiner then passively externally rotates the
tibia and places a valgus force. The knee is then extended in order to test the
medial meniscus. To test the lateral meniscus, the examiner passively
internally rotates the tibia and places a varus force. The knee is then
extended in order to test the lateral meniscus. A positive test is indicated by
pain, clicking or popping within the joint and may signal a tear of either the
medial or lateral meniscus when the knee is brought from flexion to extension.
How reliable is the McMurray’s test?
There are mixed reviews for the validity of this test. An
MRI is a very sensitive exam and makes the diagnosis easier, while excluding
other associated injuries.
The anterior cruciate ligament is located at the front of
the knee. Rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a condition
commonly seen in sports, usually due to a non-contact pivoting injury. The
Pivot Shift test is a specific test for an ACL deficient knee (ACL injury).
A pivot shift is pathognomonic for an ACL tear and is best demonstrated in a
chronic setting. The Lachman’s test is the most sensitive examination test for
an ACL injury.
The ACL keeps the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur
and provides rotational stability to the knee. Rupture of the ACL causes
anterolateral rotatory instability. The tibia moves anterolaterally in
extension; however, when you flex the knee the IT band becomes a flexor of the
knee and pulls back, reducing the tibia. The Pivot Shift Test goes
from extension (tibia subluxed) to flexion, with the tibia reduced by the
iliotibial band.
Both the Lachman’s test and the Pivot Shift test are
associated with 20-30 degrees of knee flexion. The Lachman’s test starts at
20-30 degrees of flexion, but with the Pivot Shift test, you will feel the clunk at
20-30 degrees of flexion. Remember: 20-30 degrees of flexion is important for
examination of the ACL. The femur is stabilized with one hand and the other
hand pulls the tibia anteriorly and posteriorly against the femur. The tibia
can be pulled forward more than normal (anterior translation). The examiner
will have a sense of increased movement and lack of a solid end point.
When performing the Pivot Shift test, the patient should be
totally relaxed and lying supine. The knee is in the
subluxed position when in full extension. The pivot shift starts
with extension of the knee and you can feel a “clunk” at 20-30 degrees of
flexion. The physician will hold the knee in full extension, then add valgus force, and internal
rotation of the tibia to increase the rotational instability of the knee. Then
the physician will take the knee into flexion. A palpable clunk is very specific of an
ACL tear. The iliotibial band will reduce the tibia and create the clunk on the
outside of the knee. The physician should always compare the results with the
other side.
The ACL prevents anterior translation of the tibia. It is a
secondary restraint to tibial rotation and varus and valgus. The ACL consists
of two bundles:
The Posterolateral Bundle
Anteromedial Bundle
The Posterolateral bundle prevents the pivot shift and
contributes to rotational stability. This bundle also prevents internal
rotation of the tibia with the knee in near extension (tight in extension,
loose in flexion). If it is sectioned, it increases the anterior translation
and tibial rotation at 30° of flexion. The Anteromedial bundle is tight in
flexion and if sectioned, it increases the anterior translation at 90° of
flexion.
The Lachman’s test is the most sensitive test, especially in
acute settings. The examiner will find no end point with anterior translation
of the knee and the physical examination can be difficult or limited due to
pain. With the Pivot Shift test, the patient must be completely relaxed. The
test is helpful in chronic situations, especially if the patient complains of
the knee giving way.
During the Pivot Shift, the knee subluxes in extension and reduces
at 20-30 degrees of flexion. The Pivot Shift correlates closely with patient
satisfaction of their reconstructed knee. It is also a measure of functional
instability following ACL reconstruction. Verticle femoral tunnel placement
will cause rotational instability seen as a positive pivot shift, and the
malposition of the bone tunnel will be seen in an AP view x-ray of the knee. The
9 or 10 o’clock position is better than the 12 o’clock. A vertical position is
bad.
The patient with an ACL injury usually has a non-contact
pivoting injury even with:
Awkward landing
Feeling a “Pop” sensation
Immediate swelling
Aspiration usually shows blood in the knee (75%
chance of ACL tear with hemorrhage in the knee)
Positive Lachman’s Test (may be hard to examine
due to pain)
An MRI is going to be the best imaging technique. An MRI of
the knee joint will show bone lesions or bruising in the typical location
associated with tears of the ACL. These injuries are typically located at the
middle of the femoral condyle and posterior part of the tibia laterally. It is
also possible to find a triple injury within the MRI (O’Donoghue’s Unhappy
Triad).
O’Donoghue’s Unhappy Triad consists of:
Tear of the Lateral Meniscus
Anterior Cruciate Ligament Injury (ACL tear)
Medial Collateral Ligament Injury
In chronic ACL tears, the posterior horn of the medial
meniscus is the most commonly injured structure. In acute ACL tears, send the
patient for therapy for range of motion, brace the patient, and allow the MCL
to heal and reconstruct the ACL later if needed. It is important to stress
hamstring therapy in ACL tears. The patient will probably complain of
instability immediately or later on.
In order to remember these tests, remember that “B” comes
before “O” in the alphabet and will go in this order for these procedures as
well. The “B” stands for Barlow and “O” for Ortolani. When reading the word “barlow” think: “We are going out
tonight!”, because the hip can be popped out of the acetabulum with this maneuver.
To remember Ortolani, think: “Once we have been out, now it is time
to go home!”—during the Ortolani maneuver, the femoral head is reduced back
into the acetabulum.
The Barlow maneuver identifies the unstable hip that is in a
reduced position that the clinician can passively dislocate. When performing
the Barlow Test, the examiner will flex the hip and knees to 90 degrees. The
maneuver is performed by bringing the thigh towards the midline (adducting the
hip). Mild pressure is then placed on the knee while directing the force
posteriorly. The femoral head will be pushed out of the socket. The Barlow Test
is considered positive if the hip can be popped out of socket with this
maneuver. The dislocation will be palpable.
The Ortolani Test is used to confirm the findings of the
Barlow test. The Ortolani maneuver is performed following the Barlow test to
determine if the hip is actually dislocated. The Ortolani test is performed by
the examiner flexing the hips and knees to 90 degrees. Reduction is done by
abduction of the hip and pushing the thigh anteriorly. The test is positive is
a palpable and audible clunk is heard from the hip being reduced. A hip click
is a nonspecific finding.
In summary, The Barlow Test is performed when the hip is
reduced and is used to dislocate the hip. The Ortolani Test is performed only
after the Barlow Test has been performed and the hip has been dislocated. The
Ortolani Test will reduce the hip.
Both of these tests are used for screening newborns during
the neonatal period. The hips are examined one at a time and usually the hips
are flexed during these maneuvers. Early diagnosis by these tests and
preferably with ultrasound is essential to detect hip instability and
dislocation in the neonatal period.
Treatment is directed at stabilizing the
hip that has positive Barlow and Ortolani Signs. The first born female with a
breach presentation and a positive family history are at risk of developing
developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). If the hip remains dislocated for weeks,
these two tests are usually not reliable. Barlow and Ortolani are not positive
after 3 months due to the soft tissue contracture around the hip region.
Limitation of abduction becomes the most consistent clinical findings. Children
older than 12 months will have other findings which include asymmetry of hip
abduction, a positive Trendelenburg gait and a positive Galeazzi sign.
The bulbocavernosus reflex indicates the absence or presence
of spinal shock. Spinal shock usually occurs between 24-72 hours after a spinal
injury. Spinal shock is manifested by the absence of the bulbocavernosus
reflex, hypotension, bradycardia, and complete loss of motor sensation and
reflexes. When the reflex is absent, this means that the patient is in spinal
shock because the anal sphincter will not contract when the reflex is absent.
When the reflex is present, this signals the end of spinal
shock; the anal sphincter will contract when the reflex is present. The reflex
is check by monitoring anal sphincter contraction in response to squeezing of
the penis of clitoris, or by pulling on an indwelling Foley catheter. It is a
polysynaptic response mediated by S2-S4.
What is Spinal Shock?
Spinal shock is the loss of sensation and motor power
following a spinal cord injury. Spinal shock is the loss of sensation and motor
power following a spinal cord injury. After an injury to the spine, if the
patient has no motor or sensory below the level of the lesion, the physician
must determine if the patient is in spinal shock by checking the
bulbocavernosus reflex.
If there is no anal contraction (absent bulbocavernosus
reflex), this indicates that the patient is still in shock and the prognosis
cannot be determined. If anal contraction is present (positive bulbocavernosis
reflex), this indicates the end of spinal shock. The patient’s condition and
prognosis at this point can be determined by examining sacral sparing (positive
sacral sparing indicates an incomplete lesion).
Loss of sensation and motor power below the level of injury
indicates complete spinal cord injury. Once the diagnosis of neurogenic shock
is established, the blood pressure should be managed with vasopressors to prevent
fluid overload. With the end of spinal shock, the prognosis can be determined. Examine
the patient thoroughly, including sacral sparing. The patient may have normal,
partial, or complete indications.
The most common joint affected by gout is the 1st
metatarsophalangeal joint. The most common joint affected by pesudogout is the
knee joint (Figure 1). Gout and pseudogout are similar problems with different
causes.
Gout is caused by the buildup of uric acid and the deposit
of uric acid crystals inside a joint. The best test to diagnose gout is with a
joint fluid analysis. Elevated uric acid is not a good criteria. 90% of
patients suffering from gout are men between the ages of 40-60 years. Gout
crystals are needle shaped and negatively birefringent. When placed under
polarized light they will be yellow (Figure 2).
Uric acid builds up the body by two main mechanisms. These
two mechanisms are excessive urate production and diminished urate clearance.
Uric acid is produced from the breakdown of proteins inside the body and from
the proteins of food that is eaten.
Precipitating Factors:
The sudden attack of gout can be brought on by anything that
increases the level of uric acid in the blood such as dehydration, increased
consumption of alcohol, eating large amount of meat or seafood, and
trauma/surgery.
Diagnostic Testing:
Aspiration and analysis of the joint fluid is the best
method for diagnosis (Figure 3). There are blood tests such as white blood cell
count, C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and uric acid level
that are helpful in supporting the diagnosis if elevated, but if normal, it
cannot definitively rule out gout or pseudogout.
Pesudogout or chondrocalcinosis is the deposition of calcium
pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals in the hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage
(CPPD). Pseudogout is a metabolic disease where calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate
crystals (CPPD) are formed within the joint space. It most often affects the
knee and occurs more in older patients. It is a calcification of fibrocartilage
(chondrocalcinosis). Pseudogout crystals are rhomboid shaped and positively
birefringent. Crystals will be blue when placed under polarized light (Figure
4). Associated conditions are hyperparathyroidism, rheumatoid arthritis and
gout.
Gout and pseudogout both show a sudden onset of pain,
redness and swelling typically affecting a single joint in 80% of the cases.
Gout symptoms include joint pain, swelling and arthritis. Patients with gout
have periarticular erosions along with the formation of uric acid soft tissue
masses in and around the joint which can be seen on x-ray. Soft tissue tophus
deposition with periarticular erosions called “punch-out” lesions (Figure 5).
X-rays in pseudogout will show this calcification in the
articular cartilage or menisci, with involvement of the patellofemoral joint
(Figure 6). Calcifications of the synovium, tendon, and ligaments can also be
seen.
Treatment of Gout and
Pseudogout:
Acute gout can be treated with indocine and colchicine (be
aware of peptic ulcer). In cases of chronic gout the patient will be treated
with allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inhibitor) and colchicine. Uricosuric drugs
such as Probenecid may increase uric acid excretion by the kidneys may be
helpful. Pseudogout is treated with NSAIDs and intra-articular injections.
Congenital Muscular Torticollis is usually caused by
contracture of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and usually occurs in infants.
The cause of congenital muscular torticollis is unknown. It may be caused form
pressure on the muscle or compartment syndrome of the muscle. The child holds
the head towards the affected side with the chin rotated towards the opposite
side. There is difficulty in turning the head due to a tight and shortened
sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is a common neck problem in childhood and the
condition usually resolves itself spontaneously over a period of several
months.
Conditions associated with congenital muscle torticollis:
Molding disorder or packaging deformity such as hip
dysplasia (DDH) and metatarsus adductus (up to 20%). Usually delivery is
traumatic and probably breach.
Child will have a frim palpable mass within the first four
weeks of life and a head tilt.
X-rays of the cervical spine are needed to exclude other
conditions such as rotatory C1-C2 instability and Klippel Feil syndrome.
Ultrasound is important as it can differentiate between mild
cases and severe fibrosis.
Differential diagnosis of Congenital Muscular Torticollis:
Rotatory Atlanto-axial instability/ Grisel’s disease and Klippel
Feil syndrome. These conditions are serious.
Congenital Muscular Torticollis usually resolves
spontaneously in about 90% of infants by passive stretching in the first year.
Passive stretching technique should include lateral head tilt away from the affected
side and chin rotation towards the affected side.
Treatment may be guided by
the findings in ultrasound examination of the muscle. Surgical treatment by Z
plasty is done if the child is older than 1 year with severe limitation or
rotation.